AWS CLOUD PRACTIONER EXAM

Q1: The pay-as-you-go pricing model for AWS services:

a. - reduces capital expenditures. b. - requires payment up front for AWS services. c. - is relevant only for Amazon EC2, Amazon S3, and Amazon RDS. d. - reduces operational expenditures.

Q2: Which AWS service identifies security groups that allow unrestricted access to a user's AWS resources?

a. - AWS CloudTrail b. - AWS Trusted Advisor c. - Amazon CloudWatch d. - Amazon Inspector

Q3: What is AWS Trusted Advisor?

a. - It is an AWS staff member who provides recommendations and best practices on how to use AWS. b. - It is a network of AWS partners who provide recommendations and best practices on how to use AWS. c. - It is an online tool with a set of automated checks that provides recommendations on cost optimization, performance, and security. d. - It is another name for AWS Technical Account Managers who provide recommendations on cost optimization, performance, and security.

Q4: Which services manage and automate application deployments on AWS? (Choose two.)

a. - AWS Elastic Beanstalk b. - AWS CodeCommit c. - AWS Data Pipeline d. - AWS CloudFormation

Q5: How can one AWS account use Reserved Instances from another AWS account?

a. - By using Amazon EC2 Dedicated Instances b. - By using AWS Organizations consolidated billing c. - By using the AWS Cost Explorer tool d. - By using AWS Budgets

Q6: According to the AWS shared responsibility model, what is AWS responsible for?

a. - Configuring Amazon VPC b. - Managing application code c. - Maintaining application traffic d. - Managing the network infrastructure

Q7: Which service would provide network connectivity in a hybrid architecture that includes the AWS Cloud?

a. - Amazon VPC b. - AWS Direct Connect c. - AWS Directory Service d. - Amazon API Gateway

Q8: Which of the following AWS services provide compute resources? (Choose two.)

a. - AWS Lambda b. - Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) c. - AWS CodeDeploy d. - Amazon Glacier

Q9: Which AWS service enables users to consolidate billing across multiple accounts?

a. - Amazon QuickSight b. - AWS Organizations c. - AWS Budgets d. - Amazon Forecast

Q10: Which of the following allows users to provision a dedicated network connection from their internal network to AWS?

a. - AWS CloudHSM b. - AWS Direct Connect c. - AWS VPN d. - Amazon Connect

Q11: How do Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling groups help achieve high availability for a web application?

a. - They automatically add more instances across multiple AWS Regions based on global demand of the application. b. - They automatically add or replace instances across multiple Availability Zones when the application needs it. c. - They enable the application's static content to reside closer to end users. d. - They are able to distribute incoming requests across a tier of web server instances.

Q12: When a company provisions web servers in multiple AWS Regions, what is being increased?

a. - Coupling b. - Availability c. - Security d. - Durability

Q13: A user wants guidance on possible savings when migrating from on-premises to AWS.
Which tool is suitable for this scenario?

a. - AWS Budgets b. - Cost Explorer c. - AWS Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) Calculator d. - AWS Well-Architected Tool

Q14: A customer runs an On-Demand Amazon Linux EC2 instance for 3 hours, 5 minutes, and 6 seconds.
For how much time will the customer be billed?

a. - 3 hours, 5 minutes b. - 3 hours, 5 minutes, and 6 seconds c. - 3 hours, 6 minutes d. - 4 hours

Q15: Which tool can be used to compare the costs of running a web application in a traditional hosting environment to running it on AWS?

a. - AWS Cost Explorer b. - AWS Budgets c. - AWS Cost and Usage report d. - AWS Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) Calculator

Q16: Which AWS service can be used to generate alerts based on an estimated monthly bill?

a. - AWS Config b. - Amazon CloudWatch c. - AWS X-Ray d. - AWS CloudTrail

Q17: What is the value of using third-party software from AWS Marketplace instead of installing third-party software on Amazon EC2? (Choose two.)

a. - Users pay for software by the hour or month depending on licensing. b. - AWS Marketplace enables the user to launch applications with 1-Click. c. - AWS Marketplace data encryption is managed by a third-party vendor. d. - AWS Marketplace eliminates the need to upgrade to newer software versions.

Q18: Under the AWS shared responsibility model, AWS is responsible for which security-related task?

a. - Lifecycle management of IAM credentials b. - Physical security of global infrastructure c. - Encryption of Amazon EBS volumes d. - Firewall configuration

Q19: Which AWS security service protects applications from distributed denial of service attacks with always-on detection and automatic inline mitigations?

a. - Amazon Inspector b. - AWS Web Application Firewall (AWS WAF) c. - Elastic Load Balancing (ELB) d. - AWS Shield

Q20: Which principles are used to architect applications for reliability on the AWS Cloud? (Choose two.)

a. - Design for automated failure recovery b. - Use multiple Availability Zones c. - Manage changes via documented processes d. - Test for moderate demand to ensure reliability

Q21: Which service enables customers to audit and monitor changes in AWS resources?

a. - AWS Trusted Advisor b. - Amazon GuardDuty c. - Amazon Inspector d. - AWS Config

Q22: What is an example of high availability in the AWS Cloud?

a. - Consulting AWS technical support at any time day or night b. - Ensuring an application remains accessible, even if a resource fails c. - Making any AWS service available for use by paying on demand d. - Deploying in any part of the world using AWS Regions

Q23: Which AWS service provides inbound and outbound network ACLs to harden external connectivity to Amazon EC2?

a. - AWS IAM b. - Amazon Connect c. - Amazon VPC d. - Amazon API Gateway

Q24: According to the AWS shared responsibility model, who is responsible for configuration management?

a. - It is solely the responsibility of the customer. b. - It is solely the responsibility of AWS. c. - It is shared between AWS and the customer. d. - It is not part of the AWS shared responsibility model.

Q25: Which service should be used to estimate the costs of running a new project on AWS?

a. - AWS TCO Calculator b. - AWS Simple Monthly Calculator c. - AWS Cost Explorer API d. - AWS Budgets

Q26: What time-savings advantage is offered with the use of Amazon Rekognition?

a. - Amazon Rekognition provides automatic watermarking of images. b. - Amazon Rekognition provides automatic detection of objects appearing in pictures. c. - Amazon Rekognition provides the ability to resize millions of images automatically. d. - Amazon Rekognition uses Amazon Mechanical Turk to allow humans to bid on object detection jobs.

Q27: Which of the following are benefits of hosting infrastructure in the AWS Cloud? (Choose two.)

a. - There are no upfront commitments. b. - AWS manages all security in the cloud. c. - Users have the ability to provision resources on demand. d. - Users have access to free and unlimited storage.

Q28: Which AWS service offers on-demand access to AWS security and compliance reports?

a. - AWS CloudTrail b. - AWS Artifact c. - AWS Health d. - Amazon CloudWatch

Q29: Which services use AWS edge locations? (Choose two.)

a. - Amazon CloudFront b. - AWS Shield c. - Amazon EC2 d. - Amazon RDS

Q30: A company wants to monitor the CPU usage of its Amazon EC2 resources.
Which AWS service should the company use?

a. - AWS CloudTrail b. - Amazon CloudWatch c. - AWS Cost and Usage report d. - Amazon Simple Notification Service (Amazon SNS)

Q31: Which AWS service would a customer use with a static website to achieve lower latency and high transfer speeds?

a. - AWS Lambda b. - Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator c. - Amazon Route 53 d. - Amazon CloudFront

Q32: Which AWS service enables users to deploy infrastructure as code by automating the process of provisioning resources?

a. - Amazon GameLift b. - AWS CloudFormation c. - AWS Data Pipeline d. - AWS Glue

Q33: Which AWS services provide a way to extend an on-premises architecture to the AWS Cloud? (Choose two.)

a. - Amazon EBS b. - AWS Direct Connect c. - Amazon CloudFront d. - AWS Storage Gateway

Q34: Which of the following is a cloud architectural design principle?

a. - Scale up, not out. b. - Loosely couple components. c. - Build monolithic systems. d. - Use commercial database software.

Q35: Which AWS service is a content delivery network that securely delivers data, video, and applications to users globally with low latency and high speeds?

a. - AWS CloudFormation b. - AWS Direct Connect c. - Amazon CloudFront d. - Amazon Pinpoint

Q36: What is an AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) role?

a. - A user associated with an AWS resource b. - A group associated with an AWS resource c. - An entity that defines a set of permissions for use with an AWS resource d. - An authentication credential associated with a multi-factor authentication (MFA) token

Q37: Which AWS service handles the deployment details of capacity provisioning, load balancing, Auto Scaling, and application health monitoring?

a. - AWS Config b. - AWS Elastic Beanstalk c. - Amazon Route 53 d. - Amazon CloudFront

Q38: What are the advantages of Reserved Instances? (Choose two.)

a. - They provide a discount over on-demand pricing. b. - They provide access to additional instance types. c. - They provide additional networking capability. d. - Customers can upgrade instances as new types become available.

Q39: Which benefit of the AWS Cloud supports matching the supply of resources with changing workload demands?

a. - Security b. - Reliability c. - Elasticity d. - High availability

Q40: Which of the following is the responsibility of AWS?

a. - Setting up AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) users and groups b. - Physically destroying storage media at end of life c. - Patching guest operating systems d. - Configuring security settings on Amazon EC2 instances

Q41: What tasks should a customer perform when that customer suspects an AWS account has been compromised? (Choose two.)

a. - Rotate passwords and access keys. b. - Remove MFA tokens. c. - Move resources to a different AWS Region. d. - Delete AWS CloudTrail Resources.

Q42: Which AWS tool will identify security groups that grant unrestricted Internet access to a limited list of ports?

a. - AWS Organizations b. - AWS Trusted Advisor c. - AWS Usage Report d. - Amazon EC2 dashboard

Q43: What are the benefits of using the AWS Cloud for companies with customers in many countries around the world? (Choose two.)

a. - Companies can deploy applications in multiple AWS Regions to reduce latency. b. - Amazon Translate automatically translates third-party website interfaces into multiple languages. c. - Amazon CloudFront has multiple edge locations around the world to reduce latency. d. - Amazon Comprehend allows users to build applications that can respond to user requests in many languages.

Q44: Under the shared responsibility model; which of the following areas are the customer's responsibility? (Choose two.)

a. - Firmware upgrades of network infrastructure b. - Patching of operating systems c. - Patching of the underlying hypervisor d. - Physical security of data centers

Q45: A user is running an application on AWS and notices that one or more AWS-owned IP addresses is involved in a distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack.
Who should the user contact FIRST about this situation?

a. - AWS Premium Support b. - AWS Technical Account Manager c. - AWS Solutions Architect d. - AWS Abuse team

Q46: Which AWS service or feature allows a company to visualize, understand, and manage AWS costs and usage over time?

a. - AWS Budgets b. - AWS Cost Explorer c. - AWS Organizations d. - Consolidated billing

Q47: What AWS service would be used to centrally manage AWS access policies across multiple accounts?

a. - AWS Service Catalog b. - AWS Config c. - AWS Trusted Advisor d. - AWS Organizations

Q48: - Media that stored customer data is not removed from AWS control until it has been securely decommissioned. Reference: 9. Which of the following is an advantage of using AWS?

a. - AWS audits user data. b. - Data is automatically secure. c. - There is no guessing on capacity needs. d. - AWS manages compliance needs.

Q49: When comparing AWS with on-premises Total Cost of Ownership (TCO), what costs are included?

a. - Data center security b. - Business analysis c. - Project management d. - Operating system administration

Q50: Which Amazon EC2 pricing model offers the MOST significant discount when compared to On-Demand Instances?

a. - Partial Upfront Reserved Instances for a 1-year term b. - All Upfront Reserved Instances for a 1-year term c. - All Upfront Reserved Instances for a 3-year term d. - No Upfront Reserved Instances for a 3-year term