AWS CLOUD PRACTIONER EXAM

Q1: How does AWS charge for AWS Lambda?

a. - Users bid on the maximum price they are willing to pay per hour. b. - Users choose a 1-, 3- or 5-year upfront payment term. c. - Users pay for the required permanent storage on a file system or in a database. d. - Users pay based on the number of requests and consumed compute resources.

Q2: Which of the following are benefits of the AWS Cloud? (Choose two.)

a. - Unlimited uptime b. - Elasticity c. - Agility d. - Colocation

Q3: Which AWS service provides alerts when an AWS event may impact a company's AWS resources?

a. - AWS Personal Health Dashboard b. - AWS Service Health Dashboard c. - AWS Trusted Advisor d. - AWS Infrastructure Event Management

Q4: Which of the following services provides on-demand access to AWS compliance reports?

a. - AWS IAM b. - AWS Artifact c. - Amazon GuardDuty d. - AWS KMS

Q5: What technology enables compute capacity to adjust as loads change?

a. - Load balancing b. - Automatic failover c. - Round robin d. - Auto Scaling

Q6: Under the shared responsibility model, which of the following tasks are the responsibility of the customer? (Choose two.)

a. - Maintaining the underlying Amazon EC2 hardware. b. - Managing the VPC network access control lists. c. - Encrypting data in transit and at rest. d. - Replacing failed hard disk drives.

Q7: In which scenario should Amazon EC2 Spot Instances be used?

a. - A company wants to move its main website to AWS from an on-premises web server. b. - A company has a number of application services whose Service Level Agreement (SLA) requires 99.999% uptime. c. - A company's heavily used legacy database is currently running on-premises. d. - A company has a number of infrequent, interruptible jobs that are currently using On-Demand Instances.

Q8: Which AWS service allows companies to connect an Amazon VPC to an on-premises data center? (Select TWO)

a. - AWS VPN b. - Amazon Redshift c. - API Gateway d. - Amazon Direct Connect

Q9: Which AWS service would you use to obtain compliance reports and certificates?

a. - AWS Artifact b. - AWS Lambda c. - Amazon Inspector d. - AWS Certificate Manager

Q10: Under the shared responsibility model, which of the following tasks are the responsibility of the AWS customer? (Select TWO.)

a. - Ensuring that application data is encrypted at rest b. - Ensuring that AWS NTP servers are set to the correct time c. - Ensuring that users have received security training in the use of AWS services d. - Ensuring that access to data centers is restricted

Q11: Which of the following benefits does the AWS Compliance program provide to AWS customers? (Choose two.)

a. - It verifies that hosted workloads are automatically compliant with the controls of supported compliance frameworks. b. - AWS is responsible for the maintenance of common compliance framework documentation. c. - It assures customers that AWS is maintaining physical security and data protection. d. - It ensures the use of compliance frameworks that are being used by other cloud providers.

Q12: A company wants to reduce the physical compute footprint that developers use to run code.
Which service would meet that need by enabling serverless architectures?

a. - Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) b. - AWS Lambda c. - Amazon DynamoDB d. - AWS CodeCommit

Q13: How should a customer forecast the future costs for running a new web application?

a. - Amazon Aurora Backtrack b. - Amazon CloudWatch Billing Alarms c. - AWS Simple Monthly Calculator d. - AWS Cost and Usage report

Q14: An administrator needs to rapidly deploy a popular IT solution and start using it immediately.
Where can the administrator find assistance?

a. - AWS Well-Architected Framework documentation b. - Amazon CloudFront c. - AWS CodeCommit d. - AWS Quick Start reference deployments

Q15: What function do security groups serve related Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instance security?

a. - Act as a virtual firewall for the Amazon EC2 instance. b. - Secure AWS user accounts with AWS identity and Access Management (IAM) policies. c. - Provide DDoS protection with AWS Shield. d. - Use Amazon CloudFront to protect the Amazon EC2 instance.

Q16: A company is migrating an application that is running non-interruptible workloads for a three-year time frame.
Which pricing construct would provide the MOST cost-effective solution?

a. - Amazon EC2 Spot Instances b. - Amazon EC2 Dedicated Instances c. - Amazon EC2 On-Demand Instances d. - Amazon EC2 Reserved Instances

Q17: Which of the following services is in the category of AWS serverless platform?

a. - Amazon EMR b. - Elastic Load Balancing c. - AWS Lambda d. - AWS Mobile Hub

Q18: Which of the following tasks is the responsibility of AWS?

a. - Encrypting client-side data b. - Configuring AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) roles c. - Securing the Amazon EC2 hypervisor d. - Setting user password policies

Q19: Under the shared responsibility model, which of the following is a shared control between a customer and AWS?

a. - Physical controls b. - Patch management c. - Zone security d. - Data center auditing

Q20: Which is the minimum AWS Support plan that includes Infrastructure Event Management without additional costs?

a. - Enterprise b. - Business c. - Developer d. - Basic

Q21: Which of the following can a customer use to enable single sign-on (SSO) to the AWS Console?

a. - Amazon Connect b. - AWS Directory Service c. - Amazon Pinpoint d. - Amazon Rekognition

Q22: Which of the following can limit Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) bucket access to specific users?

a. - A public and private key-pair b. - Amazon Inspector c. - AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) policies d. - Security Groups

Q23: How do customers benefit from Amazon's massive economies of scale?

a. - Periodic price reductions as the result of Amazon's operational efficiencies b. - New Amazon EC2 instance types providing the latest hardware c. - The ability to scale up and down when needed d. - Increased reliability in the underlying hardware of Amazon EC2 instances

Q24: Which of the following are categories of AWS Trusted Advisor? (Select TWO.)

a. - Fault Tolerance b. - Instance Usage c. - Infrastructure d. - Performance

Q25: Which AWS services can be used to gather information about AWS account activity? (Select TWO.)

a. - Amazon CloudFront b. - AWS Cloud9 c. - AWS CloudTrail d. - AWS CloudHSM

Q26: Which of the following is entirely the responsibility of AWS, according to the AWS shared responsibility model?

a. - Patching of the guest operating system b. - Security awareness and training c. - Physical and environmental controls d. - Development of an IAM password policy

Q27: According to the AWS shared responsibility model, what is the sole responsibility of AWS?

a. - Application security b. - Edge location management c. - Patch management d. - Client-side data

Q28: Which AWS service can be used to manually launch instances based on resource requirements?

a. - Amazon EBS b. - Amazon S3 c. - Amazon EC2 d. - Amazon ECS

Q29: One benefit of On-Demand Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) pricing is:

a. - the ability to bid for a lower hourly cost. b. - paying a daily rate regardless of time used. c. - paying only for time used. d. - pre-paying for instances and paying a lower hourly rate.

Q30: How does AWS shorten the time to provision IT resources?

a. - It supplies an online IT ticketing platform for resource requests. b. - It supports automatic code validation services. c. - It provides the ability to programmatically provision existing resources. d. - It automates the resource request process from a company's IT vendor list.

Q31: The financial benefits of using AWS are: (Select TWO.)

a. - reduced Total Cost of Ownership (TCO). b. - increased capital expenditure (capex). c. - reduced operational expenditure (opex). d. - deferred payment plans for startups.

Q32: Which services are parts of the AWS serverless platform?

a. - Amazon EC2, Amazon S3, Amazon Athena b. - Amazon Kinesis, Amazon SQS, Amazon EMR c. - AWS Step Functions, Amazon DynamoDB, Amazon SNS d. - Amazon Athena, Amazon Cognito, Amazon EC2

Q33: Which disaster recovery scenario offers the lowest probability of down time?

a. - Backup and restore b. - Pilot light c. - Warm standby d. - Multi-site active-active

Q34: A solution that is able to support growth in users, traffic, or data size with no drop in performance aligns with which cloud architecture principle?

a. - Think parallel b. - Implement elasticity c. - Decouple your components d. - Design for failure

Q35: When comparing AWS Cloud with on-premises Total Cost of Ownership, which expenses must be considered? (Choose two.)

a. - Software development b. - Project management c. - Storage hardware d. - Physical servers

Q36: What can AWS edge locations be used for? (Select TWO.)

a. - Hosting applications b. - Delivering content closer to users c. - Running NoSQL database caching services d. - Reducing traffic on the server by caching responses

Q37: When is it beneficial for a company to use a Spot Instance?

a. - When there is flexibility in when an application needs to run. b. - When there are mission-critical workloads. c. - When dedicated capacity is needed. d. - When an instance should not be stopped.

Q38: Which AWS feature should a customer leverage to achieve high availability of an application?

a. - AWS Direct Connect b. - Availability Zones c. - Data centers d. - Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC)

Q39: Which is the MINIMUM AWS Support plan that provides technical support through phone calls?

a. - Enterprise b. - Business c. - Developer d. - Basic

Q40: Which of the following services falls under the responsibility of the customer to maintain operating system configuration, security patching, and networking? - A. Amazon RDS - B. Amazon EC2 - C. Amazon ElastiCache - D. AWS Fargate

Answer

Correct Answer: B Explanation: - The customer is responsible for managing, support, patching and control of the guest operating system and AWS services provided like EC2. Reference:

32. A company will be moving from an on-premises data center to the AWS Cloud.
What would be one financial difference after the move?

a. - Moving from variable operational expense (opex) to upfront capital expense (capex). b. - Moving from upfront capital expense (capex) to variable capital expense (capex). c. - Moving from upfront capital expense (capex) to variable operational expense (opex). d. - Elimination of upfront capital expense (capex) and elimination of variable operational expense (opex)

Q41: Which scenarios represent the concept of elasticity on AWS? (Choose two.)

a. - Scaling the number of Amazon EC2 instances based on traffic. b. - Resizing Amazon RDS instances as business needs change. c. - Automatically directing traffic to less-utilized Amazon EC2 instances. d. - Using AWS compliance documents to accelerate the compliance process.

Q42: Which AWS service can serve a static website?

a. - Amazon S3 b. - Amazon Route 53 c. - Amazon QuickSight d. - AWS X-Ray

Q43: What can AWS edge locations be used for? (Select TWO.)

a. - Hosting applications b. - Delivering content closer to users c. - Running NoSQL database caching services d. - Reducing traffic on the server by caching responses

Q44: Which AWS services are defined as global instead of regional? (Select TWO.)

a. - Amazon Route 53 b. - Amazon EC2 c. - Amazon S3 d. - Amazon CloudFront

Q45: What are the multiple, isolated locations within an AWS Region that are connected by low-latency networks called?

a. - AWS Direct Connects b. - Amazon VPCs c. - Edge locations d. - Availability Zones

Q46: Which of the following common IT tasks can AWS cover to free up company IT resources? (Select TWO.)

a. - Patching databases software b. - Testing application releases c. - Backing up databases d. - Creating database schema

Q47: A company is considering moving its on-premises data center to AWS. What factors should be included in doing a Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) analysis? (Choose two.)

a. - Amazon EC2 instance availability b. - Power consumption of the data center c. - Labor costs to replace old servers d. - Application developer time

Q48: As part of the AWS shared responsibility model, which of the following operational controls do users fully inherit from AWS?

a. - Security management of data center b. - Patch management c. - Configuration management d. - User and access management

Q49: Which AWS IAM feature is used to associate a set of permissions with multiple users?

a. - Multi-factor authentication b. - Groups c. - Password policies d. - Access keys