AWS CLOUD PRACTIONER EXAM

Q1: Which service allows a company with multiple AWS accounts to combine its usage to obtain volume discounts?

a. - AWS Server Migration Service b. - AWS Organizations c. - AWS Budgets d. - AWS Trusted Advisor

Q2: Which of the following are valid ways for a customer to interact with AWS services? (Select TWO.)

a. - Command line interface b. - On-premises c. - Software Development Kits d. - Software-as-a-service

Q3: Which service is best for storing common database query results, which helps to alleviate database access load?

a. - Amazon Machine Learning b. - Amazon SQS c. - Amazon ElastiCache d. - Amazon EC2 Instance Store

Q4: Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS) offers which of the following benefits over traditional database management?

a. - AWS manages the data stored in Amazon RDS tables. b. - AWS manages the maintenance of the operating system. c. - AWS automatically scales up instance types on demand. d. - AWS manages the database type.

Q5: Which AWS service should be used for long-term, low-cost storage of data backups?

a. - Amazon RDS b. - Amazon Glacier c. - AWS Snowball d. - AWS EBS

Q6: Which of the following security measures protect access to an AWS account? (Select TWO.)

a. - Enable AWS CloudTrail. b. - Grant least privilege access to IAM users. c. - Create one IAM user and share with many developers and users. d. - Enable Amazon CloudFront.

Q7: Which of the following is an AWS Cloud architecture design principle?

a. - Implement single points of failure. b. - Implement loose coupling. c. - Implement monolithic design. d. - Implement vertical scaling.

Q8: Which AWS service provides the ability to manage infrastructure as code?

a. - AWS CodePipeline b. - AWS CodeDeploy c. - AWS Direct Connect d. - AWS CloudFormation

Q9: Which of the following AWS services can be used to serve large amounts of online video content with the lowest possible latency? (Select TWO.)

a. - AWS Storage Gateway b. - Amazon S3 c. - Amazon Elastic File System (EFS) d. - Amazon Glacier

Q10: Which of the following steps should be taken by a customer when conducting penetration testing on AWS?

a. - Conduct penetration testing using Amazon Inspector, and then notify AWS support. b. - Request and wait for approval from the customer's internal security team, and then conduct testing. c. - Notify AWS support, and then conduct testing immediately. d. - Request and wait for approval from AWS support, and then conduct testing.

Q11: Which of the following Identity and Access Management (IAM) entities is associated with an access key ID and secret access key when using AWS Command Line Interface (AWS CLI)?

a. - IAM group b. - IAM user c. - IAM role d. - IAM policy

Q12: A company is looking for a scalable data warehouse solution.
Which of the following AWS solutions would meet the company's needs?

a. - Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) b. - Amazon DynamoDB c. - Amazon Kinesis d. - Amazon Redshift

Q13: Which of the following features can be configured through the Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC) Dashboard? (Select TWO.)

a. - Amazon CloudFront distributions b. - Amazon Route 53 c. - Security Groups d. - Subnets

Q14: Which is the MINIMUM AWS Support plan that allows for one-hour target response time for support cases?

a. - Enterprise b. - Business c. - Developer d. - Basic

Q15: When architecting cloud applications, which of the following are a key design principle?

a. - Use the largest instance possible b. - Provision capacity for peak load c. - Use the Scrum development process d. - Implement elasticity

Q16: When performing a cost analysis that supports physical isolation of a customer workload, which compute hosting model should be accounted for in the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)?

a. - Dedicated Hosts b. - Reserved Instances c. - On-Demand Instances d. - No Upfront Reserved Instances

Q17: Which statement best describes Elastic Load Balancing?

a. - It translates a domain name into an IP address using DNS. b. - It distributes incoming application traffic across one or more Amazon EC2 instances. c. - It collects metrics on connected Amazon EC2 instances. d. - It automatically adjusts the number of Amazon EC2 instances to support incoming traffic.

Q18: Which of the following is a benefit of using the AWS Cloud?

a. - Permissive security removes the administrative burden. b. - Ability to focus on revenue-generating activities. c. - Control over cloud network hardware. d. - Choice of specific cloud hardware vendors.

Q19: Which of the following AWS Cloud services can be used to run a customer-managed relational database?

a. - Amazon EC2 b. - Amazon Route 53 c. - Amazon ElastiCache d. - Amazon DynamoDB

Q20: How would an AWS customer easily apply common access controls to a large set of users?

a. - Apply an IAM policy to an IAM group. b. - Apply an IAM policy to an IAM role. c. - Apply the same IAM policy to all IAM users with access to the same workload. d. - Apply an IAM policy to an Amazon Cognito user pool.

Q21: Which Amazon EC2 instance pricing model can provide discounts of up to 90%?

a. - Reserved Instances b. - On-Demand c. - Dedicated Hosts d. - Spot Instances

Q22: Which of the following is an advantage of consolidated billing on AWS?

a. - Volume pricing qualification b. - Shared access permissions c. - Multiple bills per account d. - Eliminates the need for tagging

Q23: Which of the following security-related services does AWS offer? (Select TWO.)

a. - Multi-factor authentication physical tokens b. - AWS Trusted Advisor security checks c. - Data encryption d. - Automated penetration testing

Q24: Where can AWS compliance and certification reports be downloaded?

a. - AWS Artifact b. - AWS Concierge c. - AWS Certificate Manager d. - AWS Trusted Advisor

Q25: If each department within a company has its own AWS account, what is one way to enable consolidated billing?

a. - Use AWS Budgets on each account to pay only to budget. b. - Contact AWS Support for a monthly bill. c. - Create an AWS Organization from the payer account and invite the other accounts to join. d. - Put all invoices into one Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) bucket, load data into Amazon Redshift, and then run a billing report.

Q26: Which service provides a hybrid storage service that enables on-premises applications to seamlessly use cloud storage?

a. - Amazon Glacier b. - AWS Snowball c. - AWS Storage Gateway d. - Amazon Elastic Block Storage (Amazon EBS)

Q27: Reference: 43. Which of the following is an important architectural design principle when designing cloud applications?

a. - Use multiple Availability Zones. b. - Use tightly coupled components. c. - Use open source software. d. - Provision extra capacity.

Q28: What is the AWS customer responsible for according to the AWS shared responsibility model?

a. - Physical access controls b. - Data encryption c. - Secure disposal of storage devices d. - Environmental risk management

Q29: Which design principles for cloud architecture are recommended when re-architecting a large monolithic application? (Select TWO.)

a. - Use manual monitoring. b. - Use fixed servers. c. - Implement loose coupling. d. - Rely on individual components.

Q30: Which task is AWS responsible for in the shared responsibility model for security and compliance?

a. - Granting access to individuals and services b. - Encrypting data in transit c. - Updating Amazon EC2 host firmware d. - Updating operating systems

Q31: Which AWS Cost Management tool allows you to view the most granular data about your AWS bill?

a. - AWS Cost Explorer b. - AWS Budgets c. - AWS Cost and Usage report d. - AWS Billing dashboard

Q32: Which service provides a virtually unlimited amount of online highly durable object storage?

a. - Amazon Redshift b. - Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) c. - Amazon Elastic Container Service (Amazon ECS) d. - Amazon S3

Q33: What is the benefit of using AWS managed services, such as Amazon ElastiCache and Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS)?

a. - They require the customer to monitor and replace failing instances. b. - They have better performance than customer-managed services. c. - They simplify patching and updating underlying OSs. d. - They do not require the customer to optimize instance type or size selections.

Q34: If a customer needs to audit the change management of AWS resources, which of the following AWS services should the customer use?

a. - AWS Config b. - AWS Trusted Advisor c. - Amazon CloudWatch d. - Amazon Inspector

Q35: Which Amazon EC2 pricing model adjusts based on supply and demand of EC2 instances?

a. - On-Demand Instances b. - Reserved Instances c. - Spot Instances d. - Convertible Reserved Instances

Q36: Which of the following is a component of the shared responsibility model managed entirely by AWS?

a. - Patching operating system software b. - Encrypting data c. - Enforcing multi-factor authentication d. - Auditing physical data center assets

Q37: Which storage service can be used as a low-cost option for hosting static websites?

a. - Amazon Glacier b. - Amazon DynamoDB c. - Amazon Elastic File System (Amazon EFS) d. - Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)

Q38: Which AWS service provides a customized view of the health of specific AWS services that power a customer's workloads running on AWS?

a. - AWS Service Health Dashboard b. - AWS X-Ray c. - AWS Personal Health Dashboard d. - Amazon CloudWatch

Q39: Which options does AWS make available for customers who want to learn about security in the cloud in an instructor-led setting? (Select TWO.)

a. - AWS Trusted Advisor b. - AWS Online Tech Talks c. - AWS Blog d. - AWS Forums

Q40: Which of the following services could be used to deploy an application to servers running on-premises? (Select TWO.)

a. - AWS Elastic Beanstalk b. - AWS OpsWorks c. - AWS CodeDeploy d. - AWS Batch

Q41: Which of the following services falls under the responsibility of the customer to maintain operating system configuration, security patching, and networking?

a. - Amazon RDS b. - Amazon EC2 c. - Amazon ElastiCache d. - AWS Fargate

Q42: Which AWS support plan includes a dedicated Technical Account Manager?

a. - Developer b. - Enterprise c. - Business d. - Basic

Q43: Where should a company go to search software listings from independent software vendors to find, test, buy and deploy software that runs on AWS?

a. - AWS Marketplace b. - Amazon Lumberyard c. - AWS Artifact d. - Amazon CloudSearch

Q44: Web servers running on Amazon EC2 access a legacy application running in a corporate data center.
What term would describe this model?

a. - Cloud-native b. - Partner network c. - Hybrid architecture d. - Infrastructure as a service

Q45: The AWS Cloud's multiple Regions are an example of:

a. - agility. b. - global infrastructure. c. - elasticity. d. - pay-as-you-go pricing.

Q46: What is Amazon CloudWatch?

a. - A code repository with customizable build and team commit features. b. - A metrics repository with customizable notification thresholds and channels. c. - A security configuration repository with threat analytics. d. - A rule repository of a web application firewall with automated vulnerability prevention features.

Q47: Which AWS service provides a simple and scalable shared file storage solution for use with Linux-based AWS and on-premises servers?

a. - Amazon S3 b. - Amazon Glacier c. - Amazon EBS d. - Amazon EFS

Q48: Which AWS managed service is used to host databases?

a. - AWS Batch b. - AWS Artifact c. - AWS Data Pipeline d. - Amazon RDS

Q49: Which of the following AWS features enables a user to launch a pre-configured Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (Amazon EC2) instance?

a. - Amazon Elastic Block Store (Amazon EBS) b. - Amazon Machine Image c. - Amazon EC2 Systems Manager d. - Amazon AppStream 2.0

Q50: Which of the following can an AWS customer use to launch a new Amazon Relational Database Service (Amazon RDS) cluster? (Select TWO.)

a. - AWS Concierge b. - AWS CloudFormation c. - Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3) d. - Amazon EC2 Auto Scaling