AWS CLOUD PRACTIONER EXAM

Q1: What credential components are required to gain programmatic access to an AWS account? (Select TWO)

a. - An access key ID. b. - A primary key. c. - A secret access key. d. - A user ID.

Q2: AWS Enterprise Support users have access to which service or feature that is not available to users with other AWS Support plans?

a. - AWS Trusted Advisor. b. - AWS Support case. c. - Concierge team. d. - Amazon Connect.

Q3: Which of the following will enhance the security of access to the AWS Management Console’? (Select TWO)

a. - AWS Secrets Manager. b. - AWS Certificate Manager. c. - AWS Multi-Factor Authentication (AWS MFA). d. - Security groups.

Q4: Which options does AWS make available for customers who want to learn about security in the cloud in an instructor-led setting? (Select TWO)

a. - AWS Trusted Advisor. b. - AWS Online Tech Talks. c. - AWS Blog. d. - AWS Forums.

Q5: How can an AWS user with an AWS Basic Support plan obtain technical assistance from AWS?

a. - AWS Senior Support Engineers. b. - AWS Technical Account Managers. c. - AWS Trusted Advisor. d. - AWS Discussion Forums.

Q6: Which of the following features can be configured through the Amazon Virtual Private Cloud (Amazon VPC) Dashboard? (Select TWO)

a. - Amazon CloudFront distributions. b. - Amazon Route 53. c. - Security Groups. d. - Subnets.

Q7: Which of the following is a shared control between the customer and AWS?

a. - Providing a key for Amazon S3 client-side encryption. b. - Configuration of an Amazon EC2 instance. c. - Environmental controls of physical AWS data centers. d. - Awareness.

Q8: For which auditing process does AWS have sole responsibility?

a. - AWS IAM policies. b. - Physical security. c. - Amazon S3 bucket policies. d. - AWS CloudTrail Logs.

Q9: How can a company reduce its Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) using AWS?

a. - By minimizing large capital expenditures. b. - By having no responsibility for third-party license costs. c. - By having no operational expenditures. d. - By having AWS manage applications.

Q10: Which is the MINIMUM AWS Support plan that provides technical support through phone calls?

a. - Enterprise. b. - Business. c. - Developer. d. - Basic.

Q11: When performing a cost analysis that supports physical isolation of a customer workload, which compute hosting model should be accounted for in the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO)?

a. - Dedicated Hosts b. - Reserved Instances c. - On-Demand Instances d. - No Upfront Reserved Instances

Q12: A company is planning to migrate from on-premises to the AWS Cloud. When AWS tool or service provides detailed reports on estimated cost savings after migration?

a. - AWS Total Cost of Ownership (TCO) Calculator. b. - Cost Explorer. c. - AWS Budgets. d. - AWS Migration Hub.

Q13: Which Amazon EC2 instance pricing model can provide discounts of up to 90%?

a. - Reserved Instances. b. - On-Demand. c. - Dedicated Hosts. d. - Spot Instances.

Q14: How can a user protect against AWS service disruptions if a natural disaster affects an entire geographic area?

a. - Deploy applications across multiple Availability Zones within an AWS Region. b. - Use a hybrid cloud computing deployment model within the geographic area. c. - Deploy applications across multiple AWS Regions. d. - Store application artifacts using AWS Artifact and replicate them across multiple AWS Regions.

Q15: Which services are parts of the AWS serverless platform?

a. - Amazon EC2, Amazon S3, Amazon Athena. b. - Amazon Kinesis, Amazon SQS, Amazon EMR. c. - AWS Step Functions, Amazon DynamoDB, Amazon SNS. d. - Amazon Athena, Amazon Cognito, Amazon EC2.

Q16: A company will be moving from an on-premises data center to the AWS Cloud. What would be one financial difference after the move?

a. - Moving from variable operational expense ( opex ) to upfront capital expense (capex). b. - Moving from upfront capital expense (capex) to variable capital expense (capex). c. - Moving from upfront capital expense (capex) to variable operational expense ( opex ). d. - Elimination of upfront capital expense (capex) and elimination of variable operational expense ( opex ).

Q17: What is an advantage of deploying an application across multiple Availability Zones?

a. - There is a lower risk of service failure if a natural disaster causes a service disruption in a given AWS Region. b. - The application will have higher availability because it can withstand a service disruption in one Availability Zone. c. - There will be better coverage as Availability Zones are geographical^ distant and can serve a wider area. d. - There will be decreased application latency that will improve the user experience.

Q18: Under the shared responsibility model, which of the following is the customer responsible for?

a. - Ensuring that disk drives are wiped after use. b. - Ensuring that firmware is updated on hardware devices. c. - Ensuring that data is encrypted at rest. d. - Ensuring that network cables are category six or higher.

Q19: What is the lowest-cost, durable storage option for retaining database backups for immediate retrieval?

a. - Amazon S3. b. - Amazon Glacier. c. - Amazon EBS. d. - Amazon EC2 Instance Store.

Q20: Which type of AWS storage is ephemeral and is deleted when an instance is stopped Of terminated?

a. - Amazon EBS. b. - Amazon EC2 instance store. c. - Amazon EFS. d. - Amazon S3.

Q21: Which of the following common IT tasks can AWS cover to free up company IT resources? (Select TWO)

a. - Patching databases software. b. - Testing application releases. c. - Backing up databases. d. - Creating database schema.

Q22: One of the advantages to moving infrastructure from an on-premises data center to the AWS Cloud is:

a. - It allows the business to eliminate IT bills. b. - It allows the business to put a server in each customer’s data center. c. - It allows the business to focus on business activities. d. - It allows the business to leave servers unpatched.

Q23: Which AWS service should be used for long-term, low-cost storage of data backups?

a. - Amazon RDS. b. - Amazon Glacier. c. - AWS Snowball. d. - AWS EBS.

Q24: How can a customer increase security to AWS account logons? (Select TWO)

a. - Configure AWS Certificate Manager b. - Enable Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) c. - Use Amazon Cognito to manage access d. - Configure a strong password policy

Q25: Which AWS service provides alerts when an AWS event may impact a company’s AWS resources?

a. - AWS Personal Health Dashboard. b. - AWS Service Health Dashboard. c. - AWS Trusted Advisor. d. - AWS Infrastructure Event Management.

Q26: A customer needs to run a MySQL database that easily scales. Which AWS service should they use?

a. - Amazon Aurora. b. - Amazon Redshift. c. - Amazon DynamoDB. d. - Amazon ElastiCache.

Q27: What can AWS edge locations be used for? (Select TWO)

a. - Hosting applications. b. - Delivering content closer to users. c. - Running NoSQL database caching services. d. - Reducing traffic on the server by caching responses.

Q28: Which is the MINIMUM AWS Support plan that allows for one-hour target response time for support cases?

a. - Enterprise. b. - Business. c. - Developer d. - Basic

Q29: Which AWS managed service is used to host databases?

a. - AWS Batch. b. - AWS Artifact. c. - AWS Data Pipeline. d. - Amazon RDS.

Q30: How does AWS Trusted Advisor provide guidance to users of the AWS Cloud? (Select TWO)

a. - It identifies software vulnerabilities in applications running on AWS. b. - It provides a list of cost optimization recommendations based on current AWS usage. c. - It detects potential security vulnerabilities caused by permissions settings on account resources. d. - It automatically corrects potential security issues caused by permissions settings on account resources.

Q31: Which AWS service provides a simple and scalable shared file storage solution for use with Linux-based AWS and on-premises servers?

a. - Amazon S3. b. - Amazon Glacier. c. - Amazon EBS. d. - Amazon EFS.

Q32: Why is it beneficial to use Elastic Load Balancers with applications?

a. - They allow for the conversion from Application Load. b. - Balancers to Classic Load Balancers. c. - They are capable of handling constant changes in network traffic patterns. d. - They automatically adjust capacity. They are provided at no charge to users.

Q33: Which of the following is an AWS Cloud architecture design principle?

a. - Implement single points of failure. b. - Implement loose coupling. c. - Implement monolithic design. d. - Implement vertical scaling.

Q34: What AWS team assists customers with accelerating cloud adoption through paid engagements in any of several specialty practice areas?

a. - AWS Enterprise Support. b. - AWS Solutions Architects. c. - AWS Professional Services. d. - AWS Account Managers.

Q35: Which of the following security measures protect access to an AWS account? (Select TWO)

a. - Enable AWS CloudTrail. b. - Grant least privilege access to IAM users. c. - Create one IAM user and share with many developers and users. d. - Enable Amazon CloudFront.

Q36: Which service’s PRIMARY purpose is software version control?

a. - Amazon CodeStar. b. - AWS Command Line Interface (AWS CLI). c. - Amazon Cognito. d. - AWS CodeCommit.

Q37: Which of the following AWS services can be used to serve large amounts of online video content with the lowest possible latency? (Select TWO)

a. - appGateway. b. - Amazon S3. c. - Amazon Elastic File System (EFS). d. - Amazon Glacier.

Q38: Which AWS service provides the ability to manage infrastructure as code?

a. - AWS CodePipeline. b. - AWS CodeDeploy. c. - AWS Direct Connect. d. - AWS CloudFormation.

Q39: If a customer needs to audit the change management of AWS resources, which of the following AWS services should the customer use?

a. - AWS Config. b. - AWS Trusted Advisor. c. - Amazon CloudWatch. d. - Amazon Inspector.

Q40: Which of the following are advantages of AWS consolidated billing? (Select TWO)

a. - The ability to receive one bill for multiple accounts. b. - Service limits increasing by default in all accounts. c. - A fixed discount on the monthly bill. d. - Potential volume discounts, as usage in all accounts is combined.

Q41: In which scenario should Amazon EC2 Spot Instances be used?

a. - A company wants to move its main website to AWS from an on-premises web server. b. - A company has a number of application services whose Service Level Agreement (SLA) requires 99.999% uptime. c. - A company’s heavily used legacy database is currently running on-premises. d. - A company has a number of infrequent, interruptible jobs that are currently using On-Demand Instances.

Q42: Which of the following Amazon EC2 pricing models allow customers to use existing server-bound software licenses?

a. - Spot Instances. b. - Reserved Instances. c. - Dedicated Hosts. d. - On-Demand Instances.

Q43: A company needs 24/7 phone email and chat access with a response time of less than 1 hour if a production system has a service interruption Which AWS Support plan meets these requirements at the LOWEST cost?

a. - Basic. b. - Developer. c. - Business. d. - Enterprise.

Q44: Which of the following Identity and Access Management (IAM) entities is associated with an access key ID and secret access key when using AWS Command Line Interface (AWS CLI)?

a. - IAM group. b. - IAM user. c. - IAM role. d. - IAM policy.

Q45: Which of the following is an advantage of consolidated billing on AWS?

a. - Volume pricing qualification. b. - Shared access permissions. c. - Multiple bills per account. d. - Eliminates the need for tagging.

Q46: Which disaster recovery scenario offers the lowest probability of down time?

a. - Backup and restore. b. - Pilot light. c. - Warm standby. d. - Multi-site active-active.

Q47: Which activity is a customer responsibility in the AWS Cloud according to the AWS shared responsibility model?

a. - Ensuring network connectivity from AWS to the internet. b. - Patching and fixing flaws within the AWS Cloud infrastructure. c. - Ensuring the physical security of cloud data centers. d. - Ensuring Amazon EBS volumes are backed up.

Q48: A company wants to expand from one AWS Region into a second AWS Region. What does the company need to do to start supporting the new Region?

a. - Contact an AWS Account Manager to sign a new contract. b. - Move an Availability Zone to the new Region. c. - Begin deploying resources in the second Region. d. - Download the AWS Management Console for the new Region.

Q49: Which AWS service provides a customized view of the health of specific AWS services that power a customer’s workloads running on AWS?

a. - AWS Service Health Dashboard. b. - AWS X-Ray. c. - AWS Personal Health Dashboard. d. - Amazon CloudWatch.

Q50: A customer is deploying a new application and needs to choose an AWS Region. Which of the following factors could influence the customer’s decision? (Select TWO)

a. - Reduced latency to users. b. - The application’s presentation in the local language. c. - Data sovereignty compliance. d. - Cooling costs in hotter climates.